I know.....I know....the title itself is like wtf? LOL. But I want to hear your opinions. A white supremacist was debating with Tariq and asked if white people who were the offspring of someone who passed as white generations ago would (or should) get reparations as well. Tariq said no (which I would support) but the person did have a point.
There is a woman, white woman, she grew up in a family that was white looking and white culturally and she had a grandmother from Louisiana who she found as an adult passed as white.
Technically she had an ancestor as far as I know who would be on the 1870 census. My guess is this. There are 1000s of white people who suspect an ancestor passed as white and they are going to find and claim them all of a sudden.
Legally, when reparations are paid, can white people in her position be excluded? Or will they just have to be included for FBAs to get it and that's just one of the 'costs'?
I don't have a vote but having the qualification be both sides of the family eliminates that. Anyway, just curious as to what the FBAs on this site think and any recommendations?
I've always maintained that reparations paid by America is not only just and required but also would be transformative for those that receive it but by extension to all Blacks. Getting the strongest nation in the world to pay, I think, would also trigger not just reparations globally (Caribbean, Central and South America and Africa, Middle East, where ever Blacks were enslaved and or colonized) but also possibly (hopefully) spark REAL pan-Africanism that is reciprocal.
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